Double Accusatives (1 Tim 2:6; 1 John 4:10)

When I read these two examples, I read them as simple appositives that can just be set off with commas in English and be done with it. The problem is that, in each case, it is a bit awkward to the English mind to just set it off with a comma. Not shown in the video are the KJV and NKJV, which say, in 1 Tim 2:6, "who gave himself a ransom for all." I'm not that acquainted enough with Elizabethan-era English to know for sure, but I would assume that without the comma it was somehow still clear to Englishmen of that day, such that they would not assume that "himself" was an indirect object (as if dative case in Greek), supposing that Jesus was giving himself something.

Hello, I am having a Bible study with a Catholic friend and I was hoping to get some help with a paragraph found on a leading Catholic website (Catholic.com). I would appreciate any insights. Believing that Mary is full of grace is a big deal concerning the Catholic dogmas surrounding Mary's veneration; would you consider writing a newsletter addressing this? "An implicit reference can also be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary in Luke 1:28: “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you.” The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. This word represents the proper name of the person being addressed by the angel, and it therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates a perfection of grace that is both intensive and extensive." Thank you! I greatly appreciate the time and energy you’ve given to the students of God’s word. - Laura Riggs ThisGeneration.net Acts 2:38