greekprof's blog

When we translate the Greek conjunction γάρ as "for," we sometimes obscure the connection between verses. When Jesus says that the Pharisees wouldn't even get into the kingdom of God, how does that relate to his prior assertion that every iota and stroke of the pen found in the law will be fulfilled in him?

When can a present refer to the future, and what is the "more difficult reading" in textual criticism.

Paul says that the church is to formally agree to take care of widows who are truly alone and, among other things, have lives that witness to their good deeds. But how do you specify that the following clauses are all example of good works? Is it okay to use a colon in translation?

Sometimes, in an attempt to make a translation understandable, functional equivalent translations can lose clues as to meaning, the very thing they are trying not to do. In the case of Acts 1:24, the NIV loses the double use of τόπος.

Normal Greek word order is conjunction-verb-subject-object, but that order is varied in almost every verse in there Bible. So what do you do when the structure of a verse is complicated and different? Find the verb, then the subject (either a nominative or from the personal ending), then the direct object (if there is one). From that point on, you can put the other pieces together.

A friend of mine pointed out the irregularity of the grammar in this verse. When the biblical writers break what we consider to be “proper” grammar, we call it a “solecism.” Sounds better than saying they are “wrong,” but caution is in order before we determine that a native speaker makes an error in his own language.